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STARS EXAM PHYSICAL SCIENCE evans

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
What is a system of knowledge and the methods used to find that knowledge?
a.
science
c.
measurement
b.
technology
d.
curiosity
 

 2. 
Which of the following is NOT a branch of natural science?
a.
life science
c.
physical science
b.
Earth and space science
d.
social science
 

 3. 
How is 0.00069 written in scientific notation?
a.
69 ´ 10–5
c.
0.69 ´ 10–3
b.
6.9 ´ 104
d.
6.9 ´ 10–4
 

 4. 
On the Celsius scale, at what temperature does water boil?
a.
0°
c.
100°
b.
212°
d.
32°
 

 5. 
What is a peer review?
a.
a process in which only close friends of a scientist review the scientist’s work
b.
a process in which scientists examine other scientists’ work
c.
a process in which scientists copy other scientists’ work
d.
a process in which scientists keep their work secret
 

 6. 
Which of the following are pure substances?
a.
solutions
c.
homogeneous mixtures
b.
compounds
d.
colloids
 

 7. 
If a material contains three elements joined in a fixed proportion, it is a(an)
a.
mixture.
c.
atom.
b.
solution.
d.
compound.
 

 8. 
Which of the following is a mixture?
a.
carbon dioxide
c.
silicon dioxide
b.
silicon
d.
sand
 

 9. 
A mixture can be classified as a solution, suspension, or colloid based on the
a.
number of particles it contains.
b.
size of its largest particles.
c.
color of its particles.
d.
size of its smallest particles.
 

 10. 
Which of the following is malleable?
a.
glass
c.
ice
b.
pottery
d.
gold
 

 11. 
A substance has a melting point of 0ºC and a boiling point of 100ºC. The substance is most likely
a.
water.
c.
gold.
b.
hydrogen.
d.
table salt.
 

 12. 
Filtration can be used to separate mixtures based on
a.
their boiling points.
b.
their densities.
c.
their melting points.
d.
the size of their particles.
 

 13. 
When a physical change in a sample occurs, which of the following does NOT change?
a.
shape
c.
volume
b.
temperature
d.
composition
 

 14. 
Which of the following is a chemical change?
a.
ice melting
b.
ice being carved
c.
water boiling
d.
water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen
 

 15. 
Which of the following factors affects the pressure of an enclosed gas?
a.
temperature
c.
number of particles
b.
volume
d.
all of the above
 

 16. 
If the volume of a cylinder is reduced from 8.0 liters to 4.0 liters, the pressure of the gas in the cylinder will change from 70 kilopascals to
a.
35 kilopascals.
c.
140 kilopascals.
b.
105 kilopascals.
d.
560 kilopascals.
 

 17. 
The phase change that is the reverse of sublimation is
a.
condensation.
c.
vaporization.
b.
melting.
d.
deposition
 

 18. 
The phase change in which a substance changes from a solid to a liquid is
a.
freezing.
c.
sublimation.
b.
melting.
d.
condensation.
 

 19. 
The Greek philosopher Democritus coined what word for a tiny piece of matter that cannot be divided?
a.
element
c.
electron
b.
atom
d.
molecule
 

 20. 
Which of the following is NOT part of John Dalton’s atomic theory?
a.
All elements are composed of atoms.
b.
All atoms of the same element have the same mass.
c.
Atoms contain subatomic particles.
d.
A compound contains atoms of more than one element.
 

 21. 
Who provided evidence for the existence of a nucleus in an atom?
a.
John Dalton
c.
Democritus
b.
J. J. Thomson
d.
Ernest Rutherford
 

 22. 
Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
a.
electron
c.
neutron
b.
alpha particle
d.
proton
 

 23. 
To find the number of neutrons in an atom, you would subtract
a.
mass number from atomic number.
c.
atomic number from electron number.
b.
atomic number from mass number.
d.
isotope number from atomic number.
 

 24. 
In Niels Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons move
a.
like balls rolling down a hill.
c.
like popcorn in a popcorn popper.
b.
like planets orbiting the sun.
d.
like beach balls on water waves.
 

 25. 
What can you assume has happened if an electron moves to a higher energy level?
a.
The atom has become more stable.
c.
The electron has gained energy.
b.
The electron has lost energy.
d.
The atom has lost an electron.
 

 26. 
Which of the following provides the best analogy for an electron in an atomic orbital?
a.
a bee moving from flower to flower in a garden
b.
a bird resting on a tree branch
c.
an ant crawling on the surface of a leaf
d.
a bee trying to escape from a closed jar
 

 27. 
The usefulness of Mendeleev’s periodic table was confirmed by
a.
the discovery of subatomic particles.
b.
its immediate acceptance by other scientists.
c.
the discovery of elements with predicted properties.
d.
the discovery of the nucleus.
 

 28. 
One twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom is used to define a(an)
a.
atomic number.
c.
mass number.
b.
atomic mass.
d.
atomic mass unit.
 

 29. 
The unit for atomic mass is
a.
gram
c.
pound
b.
amu
d.
none of the above
 

 30. 
The tendency of an element to react is closely related to
a.
its atomic mass.
b.
attractions between its atoms.
c.
the number of valence electrons in atoms of the element.
d.
the ratio of protons to neutrons in atoms of the element.
 

 31. 
Which of the following gases emit colors when an electric current is applied?
a.
hydrogen and helium
c.
fluorine and chlorine
b.
argon and krypton
d.
oxygen and nitrogen
 

 32. 
Typically, atoms gain or lose electrons to achieve
a.
an exchange of energy.
b.
ionization.
c.
a stable electron configuration.
d.
vaporization.
 

 33. 
In an electron dot diagram, the symbol for an element is used to represent
a.
the nucleus.
b.
the nucleus and all electrons.
c.
the nucleus and valence electrons.
d.
the nucleus and all non-valence electrons.
 

 34. 
Which of the following compounds does NOT contain molecules?
a.
H2
c.
CO2
b.
NaCl
d.
H2O
 

 35. 
You see a structural formula in which the symbols for elements are connected by a long dash. You can assume that the chemical bonds in the compound are
a.
ionic.
c.
metallic.
b.
covalent.
d.
unstable.
 

 36. 
The water molecule H2O is polar because it contains two polar single bonds and
a.
its molecule has a linear shape.
b.
molecules that contain polar bonds are always polar.
c.
its molecule has a bent shape.
d.
the attractions between water molecules are strong.
 

 37. 
Which phrase best describes a metallic bond?
a.
a bond that is formed by a metal
b.
the attraction between a metal anion and a shared pool of electrons
c.
a bond that forms between a metal and a nonmetal
d.
the attraction between a metal cation and a shared pool of electrons
 

 38. 
Which statement about metals is true?
a.
A metal lattice is extremely rigid.
b.
The bonds within a metal lattice are weak.
c.
Electrons in a metal lattice are free to move.
d.
Generally, metals have a low melting point.
 

 39. 
Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation for the synthesis of NaBr from Na and Br2?
a.
Na + Br2 ® NaBr
b.
2Na + Br2 ® NaBr
c.
Na + Br2 ® 2NaBr
d.
2Na + Br2 ® 2NaBr
 

 40. 
How many moles of He are in 16 g of the element?
a.
1.0 mol
c.
8.0 mol
b.
4.0 mol
d.
16 mol
 

 41. 
Which of the following is NOT always true about a synthesis reaction?
a.
One product is formed.
b.
There is only one reactant.
c.
The general formula is A + B ® C.
d.
A reactant might be a compound, or it might be an element.
 

 42. 
In general, if the temperature of a chemical reaction is increased, the reaction rate
a.
increases.
c.
remains the same.
b.
decreases.
d.
cannot be predicted.
 

 43. 
The equation 2NO2 « N2O4 shows a system
a.
in chemical equilibrium.
b.
in physical equilibrium.
c.
that does not reach equilibrium.
d.
that does not change.
 

 44. 
What type of nuclear decay releases energy but not a particle?
a.
alpha decay
c.
gamma decay
b.
beta decay
d.
electron decay
 

 45. 
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
Chemical reaction rates vary with the conditions of the reaction, but nuclear decay rates do not.
b.
Nuclear decay rates vary with the conditions of the reaction, but chemical reaction rates do not.
c.
Both chemical reaction rates and nuclear decay rates vary with the conditions of the reaction.
d.
Neither chemical reaction rates nor nuclear decay rates vary with the conditions of the reaction.
 

 46. 
Which of the following is a radioisotope used to date rock formations?
a.
carbon-14
c.
cobalt-60
b.
uranium-235
d.
carbon-12
 

 47. 
Transmutation involves
a.
nuclear change.
b.
chemical change.
c.
both a nuclear change and a chemical change.
d.
neither a nuclear nor a chemical change.
 

 48. 
Which of the following particles is smaller than the rest?
a.
electron
c.
neutron
b.
proton
d.
alpha particle
 

 49. 
What is the most appropriate SI unit to express the speed of a cyclist in the last leg of a 10-km race?
a.
km/s
c.
mm/s
b.
km/h
d.
cm/h
 

 50. 
The slope of a line on a distance-time graph is
a.
distance.
c.
speed.
b.
time.
d.
displacement.
 

 51. 
What is the speed of a bobsled whose distance-time graph indicates that it traveled 100 m in 25 s?
a.
4 m/s
c.
0.25 mph
b.
2500 m/s
d.
100 m/s
 

 52. 
What is instantaneous acceleration?
a.
how fast a speed is changing at a specific instant
b.
how fast a velocity is changing at a specific instant
c.
how fast a direction is changing at a specific instant
d.
all of the above
 

 53. 
The SI unit of force is the
a.
joule.
c.
meter.
b.
kilogram.
d.
newton.
 

 54. 
When an unbalanced force acts on an object,
a.
the object’s motion does not change.
c.
the weight of the object decreases.
b.
the object accelerates.
d.
the inertia of the object increases.
 

 55. 
What kind of friction occurs as a fish swims through water?
a.
fluid
c.
sliding
b.
rolling
d.
static
 

 56. 
The property of matter that resists changes in motion is called
a.
friction.
c.
inertia.
b.
gravity.
d.
weight.
 

 57. 
Newton’s third law of motion describes
a.
action and reaction forces.
c.
centripetal forces.
b.
balanced forces.
d.
net force.
 

 58. 
The product of an object’s mass and velocity is its
a.
centripetal force.
c.
net force.
b.
momentum.
d.
weight.
 

 59. 
Which of the following universal forces is the weakest?
a.
electric
c.
magnetic
b.
gravitational
d.
strong nuclear
 

 60. 
The force that keeps an object moving in a circle is called
a.
centripetal force.
c.
inertia.
b.
fluid friction.
d.
momentum.
 

 61. 
What is the unit of work?
a.
joule
c.
watt
b.
newton/meter
d.
all of the above
 

 62. 
The SI unit of power is the
a.
joule.
c.
newton-meter.
b.
newton.
d.
watt.
 

 63. 
A machine is a device that can multiply
a.
force.
c.
work.
b.
power.
d.
all of the above
 

 64. 
The actual mechanical advantage of a machine
a.
cannot be less than 1.
b.
decreases as the input distance increases.
c.
increases with greater friction.
d.
is less than the ideal mechanical advantage of the machine.
 

 65. 
Reducing friction in a machine
a.
decreases its actual mechanical advantage.
b.
decreases the work output.
c.
increases its efficiency.
d.
increases its ideal mechanical advantage.
 

 66. 
A mechanical device requires 420 J of work to do 230 J of work in lifting a crate. What is the efficiency of the device?
a.
0.5%
c.
55%
b.
190%
d.
183%
 

 67. 
An ax is an example of a(an)
a.
inclined plane.
c.
wedge.
b.
lever.
d.
wheel and axle.
 

 68. 
The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is found by
a.
multiplying the circumference of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
b.
dividing the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
c.
dividing the radius of the axle by the radius of the wheel.
d.
multiplying the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
 

 69. 
An object’s gravitational potential energy is NOT directly related to which of the following?
a.
its height relative to a reference level
c.
its speed
b.
its mass
d.
the acceleration due to gravity
 

 70. 
Which of the following is an example of an object with elastic potential energy?
a.
a wind-up toy that has been wound up
b.
a compressed basketball
c.
a stretched rubber band
d.
all of the above
 

 71. 
A 4-kilogram cat is resting on top of a bookshelf that is 3 meters high. What is the cat’s gravitational potential energy relative to the floor if the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2?
a.
7 J
c.
29 J
b.
12 J
d.
118 J
 

 72. 
Nuclear power plants are designed to convert nuclear energy into what type of energy?
a.
chemical
c.
geothermal
b.
electrical
d.
mechanical
 

 73. 
The mechanical energy of an object equals its
a.
chemical energy plus its nuclear energy.
b.
kinetic energy plus its potential energy.
c.
nuclear energy.
d.
thermal energy.
 

 74. 
Which of the following types of transportation is NOT mass transportation?
a.
bus
c.
streetcar
b.
car
d.
train
 

 75. 
Which of the following is a unit of temperature?
a.
Celsius degree
c.
kilogram
b.
joule
d.
calorie
 

 76. 
To which of the following does the first law of thermodynamics apply?
a.
heating objects
c.
doing work on a system
b.
transferring thermal energy
d.
all of the above
 

 77. 
Which of the following states that absolute zero cannot be reached?
a.
the first law of thermodynamics
b.
the second law of thermodynamics
c.
the third law of thermodynamics
d.
the second and third laws of thermodynamics
 

 78. 
Which type of mechanical wave needs a source of energy to produce it?
a.
a transverse wave
c.
a surface wave
b.
a longitudinal wave
d.
all of the above
 

 79. 
In refraction, when a wave travels from one medium to another, it
a.
changes speeds.
c.
always moves in the same direction.
b.
stays in step.
d.
travels in the opposite direction.
 

 80. 
Sonar equipment sends sound waves into deep water and measures
a.
refraction of the transmitted wave.
b.
only the direction of the reflected wave.
c.
the time delay of the returning echoes.
d.
interference of the transmitted and reflected waves.
 

 81. 
Which part of the ear amplifies the vibrations from sound waves?
a.
outer ear
c.
middle ear
b.
inner ear
d.
both a and b
 

 82. 
In 1926, Michelson was able to measure the speed of light using
a.
lanterns.
c.
mirrors.
b.
stars.
d.
sunlight.
 

 83. 
Infrared rays have a shorter wavelength than
a.
ultraviolet rays.
c.
radar waves.
b.
X-rays.
d.
gamma rays.
 

 84. 
Newton’s prism experiments showed that white sunlight is made up of
a.
the full electromagnetic spectrum.
b.
only blue light.
c.
all the colors of the visible spectrum.
d.
only the longest wavelengths.
 

 85. 
If an atom gains electrons, it becomes a
a.
positively charged ion.
c.
neutral atom.
b.
negatively charged ion.
d.
neutral ion.
 

 86. 
Walking across a carpet is an example of charge being transferred by
a.
contact.
c.
static electricity.
b.
induction.
d.
friction.
 

 87. 
Which of the following materials allows charges to flow easily?
a.
glass
c.
an electrical conductor
b.
wood
d.
an electrical insulator
 

 88. 
Which of the following represents Ohm’s law?
a.
I physical_science_ex_files/i0890000.jpg V physical_science_ex_files/i0890001.jpg R
c.
R physical_science_ex_files/i0890002.jpg V physical_science_ex_files/i0890003.jpg I
b.
V physical_science_ex_files/i0890004.jpg I physical_science_ex_files/i0890005.jpg R
d.
V physical_science_ex_files/i0890006.jpg I physical_science_ex_files/i0890007.jpg R
 

 89. 
What is the unit of electric power?
a.
ampere
c.
watt
b.
volt
d.
ohm
 

 90. 
Which of the following statements describes the interaction between magnetic poles?
a.
Like poles attract each other.
b.
Like poles repel each other, and opposite poles attract each other.
c.
Opposite poles repel each other.
d.
Like poles attract each other, and opposite poles repel each other.
 

 91. 
How does the magnetic force exerted by a magnet change as the distance between two magnets increases?
a.
The magnetic force increases.
b.
The magnetic force stays the same.
c.
The magnetic force decreases.
d.
The magnetic force does not change with distance.
 

 92. 
A ferromagnetic material that has domains that remain aligned for a long period of time is called
a.
a neutral object.
c.
a permanent magnet.
b.
nonmagnetic.
d.
a temporary magnet.
 

 93. 
What creates a magnetic field?
a.
charged particles that do not move
c.
gravity
b.
moving electric charges
d.
an isolated magnetic pole
 

 94. 
If a current-carrying wire is in a magnetic field, in what direction will a force be exerted on the wire?
a.
perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the current direction
b.
parallel to both the current direction and the magnetic field
c.
perpendicular to the current direction and parallel to the magnetic field
d.
perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the current direction
 

 95. 
Which of the following is the reason “soft” iron is used for the cores of electromagnets?
a.
It is difficult to magnetize.
c.
It has no magnetic domains.
b.
It is easily magnetized.
d.
It is a permanent magnet.
 

 96. 
Before electric current in power lines can be safe for your home, it must pass through a
a.
turbine.
c.
step-up transformer.
b.
step-down transformer.
d.
generator.
 

 97. 
Democritus thought that matter was made of tiny particles
a.
of earth, air, fire, and water.
b.
that could not be divided.
c.
that could be divided.
d.
that were all round and smooth.
 

 98. 
If 2 grams of element X combine with 4 grams of element Y to form compound XY, how many grams of element Y would combine with 14 grams of X to form the same compound?
a.
7 grams
c.
21 grams
b.
14 grams
d.
28 grams
 

 99. 
According to John Dalton’s observations, when elements combine in a compound,
a.
the ratio of their masses is always the same.
b.
each element contributes an equal number of atoms.
c.
their volumes are always equal.
d.
their masses are always equal.
 

 100. 
Which of the following most accurately represents John Dalton’s model of the atom?
a.
a tiny, solid sphere with an unpredictable mass for a given element
b.
a hollow sphere with a dense nucleus
c.
a tiny, solid sphere with a predictable mass for a given element
d.
a sphere that is hollow throughout
 



 
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